Are you sure the Philistines that Abraham dealt with are the same
Philistines that David defeated?
Or could this be another example of
Macedonians' where the name of a place remains, but the inhabitants change?
Just out of curiosity, if the Philistines were Hamitic and from Egypt, why
would they speak a Semitic language? Does this not require a language
change just as if they were Indo-European?
Kevin Riley
-------Original Message-------
From: James Read
Date: 24/05/2009 7:39:03 PM
It seems more likely that the Philistine language has always been of
Semitic origin and any traces of Indo-European loan words and
Mycenaean pottery can perhaps be better explained by the influence of
Later invaders. Indigenous peoples tend to cherish their language and
Culture and not all invasions are successful in supplanting the
Language (there are still communities in Wales that speak a Gaelic
Dialect to this day).
And so the above linguistic and archaeological observations perhaps
Best answer the question of where those who later invaded and
Influenced the philistines came from but not what the original
Language of the philistines was or where the philistines originally
Came from. The accounts in Genesis make it clear to us that the
Philistines are
a) of Hamitic origin (more precisely from Egypt)
B) spoke a Semitic language from their very conception as a nation
James Christian
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