Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] The use of the Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21
Date: Thu, 23 Apr 2009 06:54:24 -0700
On 23 Apr 2009 at 17:01, George Athas wrote:
> Dave,
>
> I think we have a similar approach to the language. Any subjunctive action
> is indefinite, because it has not particularised (i.e. It hasn't happened).
> Any future action is indefinite, because it too has not particularised
> (i.e. It hasn't happened).
>
Agreed. The remarkable thing is, I really didn't see anybody take this
approach to the future
until Hatav, and some reviews I read considered her approach "radical"
because of that.
(Don't ask me who they were because I'm operating from LTMLV here.)
Dave Washburn
Re: [b-hebrew] The use of the Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21
, (continued)