dear Isaac,
would you know why in Gen 1,18 we have a hatuf patah under the lamed (LHBDYL), which I don't understand: this semi vowel never appears under lamed as a preposition. Note that I have this from the BHS edition. Interestingly Leviticus 10,10 also mentions the same lamed with hatuf patah on the same word. Elsewhere any word starting with W(shuruk)LH-- would have as anticipated a patah or a shewa. Is this hatuf patah under the lamed a mistake? if not what is the rationale ?
laurent
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