Subject: [b-hebrew] time reference in the biblical Hebrew verbal system
Date: Wed, 18 Feb 2009 21:58:57 -0600
Do any of you know if Niccacci argues that the verb carries time reference in
some way in Biblical Hebrew? I know he says the past, present, and future
axises are represented by the Qatal, participial and nominal clauses, and
Yiqtol respectively in direct speech, but is he really implying that the verb
has time reference at least in direct speech? I think I agree with that, but
there are so many who disagree. Am I understanding him correctly? What are
your thoughts on the issue?