John:
On Tue, Jan 6, 2009 at 8:22 PM, Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com> wrote:
I did an analysis of the WLC text, and came up with the following stats:
.....
So I ask my question again, why do some people have these two as an affixed
pronoun?
B"H
John Steven
Thanks for the analysis. I found I disagreed with most of it (or else
misunderstood it).
The 1 Chronicles 15:13 verse appears to be a contraction of MN.
2 Chronicles 30:3 the contraction of MN makes the most sense, though
awkward.
I think it has something to do with the vocalization preserved by the
Masoretes, and I'm not going to argue where theirs came from.
Karl W. Randolph.
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