[Steve Miller] Thanks Harold. The meaning of the Biblical Hebrew words is determined by
how they are used in the Bible. When a word is used only 2 times without a specific
meaning required from the context that is not reason enough to question the translation
of that word? So what would be sufficient reason? If it was used only once? Neither LXX
nor Lamsa translated it as "clothing" here. Lamsa translated it
as "clothing" in Prov 7:10 though.
Could the meaning of the 2nd ½ of Ps 73:6 be, "Thorns of violence cover them" or
"a thorny covering of violence is to them"? As thorns are a fallen self-defense, the
meaning then would be -- if anyone tries to reprove them,they violently attack him.
If so, then Prov 7:10 could be translated, "and behold a woman to meet him, a thorny harlot
and subtle of heart." "Thorny" means she speaks verbal barbs.
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