How would you compare and contrast the use of the Hebrew verb NG( at Genesis
12: 17 and at Genesis 32: 25?
My argument is that in both cases, the meaning is that YHWH applies “a
mysterious, harsh divine t-o-u-c-h, that has great meaning”.
As an expert in Hebrew grammar, your opinion of how to compare and contrast
the Hebrew verb NG( at Genesis 12: 17 and Genesis 32: 25 would be greatly
appreciated.
Do you think that the Hebrew author of the Patriarchal narratives wants us to
perceive YHWH as communicating with first Pharaoh and then Jacob in a
somewhat comparable manner? If not, then why did the author use the same
Hebrew
verb, NG(, in both cases?