> I've been looking at the past tense with gutterals recently, and have some
> questions
> concerning pronuciation. Take for example nata' נטע [with an ayin at the
> end]; 'she' form
> of the verb would be נטעה but my problem is, when spoken aloud, in MODERN
> ISRAELI
> HEBREW would it be 'notea' with the schwa pronounced as 'e', or simply
> 'nota'
> [the same as the masc. form]?
Modern Hebrew pronunciation of the last word in Ps 104:16 is [nata].
Masoretic pronunciation is [nɔtˤɔʕ] ( ɔ = qamats, tˤ = teth, ʕ = ayin )
> Another question is also, ח [chet] seems to be treated as a non-gutteral in
> some places, take for example, 'bachar' בחר it is supposed to be pronounced
> 'bacharah' in biblical hebrew with an extra- 'a' because of the gutteral,
> but I am
> assuming in modern israeli hebrew many speakers would simply say 'bachrah',
> is this correct?
Your assumption is wrong. Modern Hebrew pronunciation is [baxara]. The first
word in Prov 31:18 is pronounced by Modern Hebrew speakers as [taʔama]
Masoretic pronunciation is [tˤɔʕamɔ] ( ʔ = glottal stop )