' Ve'avarti VE'eretz mitzrayim ba'lailah hazeh, ve-hikeitiCHOL-bechor....'
I was wondering if anybody could explain why the usual dagesh-ed formis not used!
The rule is very simple actually. The dagesh is dropped after an open
syllable.
This is always the case after an open syllable in the middle of a word,
and is also the case after open syllables at the end of the previous
word
when the two words are "connected" (i.e. the previous word has a
connecting cantillation mark).
Yaakov (J) Stein
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