I think if it is to be used to argue for such a use in Biblical Hebrew, you
really need to find examples from the ANE, dating to before about C6th BCE,
for it to have any hope of being convincing.
Kevin Riley
-------Original Message-------
From: pporta AT oham.net
Date: 14/04/2008 3:52:23 PM
Do you mean something like:
1. In Latin (for instance, when the Pope speaks or writes in Latin): Nos for
Ego
2. In Spanish (mainly in ancient times): Nos, el Rey (We, the King) for Yo,
El Rey (I, the King)?
If yes, could the noun dealt with in www.oham.net/out/S-t/S-t1163.html be a
Clear case of this majestatic plural?