1. How do you understand a "transitive use" of an INtransitive verb?
There are verbs that can be used as both transitives and intransitives. The
English verb "to run" is one of them. The Hebrew verb RWC has a similar
meaning in the intransitive, and appears from at least one use that it could
be used as a transitive as well.
2. Look at B. in www.oham.net/out/P-d/P-d221.html and be aware that this
pattern was approved by the Academy of the Hebrew Language in 1996 as
Niph'al Past, third person singular masculine, of verbs ayin-ayin (RCC) (not
of verbs ayin-waw: RWC)
Who is the Academy of the Hebrew Language that I should listen to them? I
never heard of them before (at least not by that name). If the context
indicates one meaning, should I listen to the context or to some claims by
other people without giving their reasons?
_______________________________________________
Pere
----- Original Message -----
*From:* K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
*To:* pporta AT oham.net
*Cc:* B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
*Sent:* Monday, March 31, 2008 7:44 PM
*Subject:* Re: [b-hebrew] Ecc 12:6: BWR
Pere:
You're right on the number, I mistyped it.
What I said was that this is a transitive use of the verb. As a transitive
use, the niphal is possible, even though in this particular example it is
qal. As far as I know, intransitive verbs cannot take a niphal, but
transitive ones can.
Karl W. Randolph.
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