Yigal, I did not mean to imply that Aramaic was any less Semitic than Hebrew only that there are differences in the spelling of the same words between the two; your explanation is helpful. Also, would you consider Arpachshad to be a Semitic name?
In any case, there is nothing more "truly Semitic" in the Gen. spellings or
"more Aramaic" in the Chr. spellings, besides which of course Aramaic is
just as "Semitic" a language as Hebrew.
Hope that helps,
Yigal Levin
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