> right" and accurately preserved pronunciation from Biblical times. I propose
> that in Biblical times, all syllables had the form of CV (consonant vowel),
> in which case the final alep would have had a vowel connected to it. I
This would sound strange to me, do You have an example of another
language that has NO closed (CVC) syllabes?
But the transcription using cuneiform signs has to use such syllabes,
or am I wrong?
> But as I wrote above, the evidence is insufficient to prove any Biblical
> period pronunciation, and the only guide for vowels are the Masoretic
> points.
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
--
Petr Tomasek <http://www.etf.cuni.cz/~tomasek>
Jabber: butrus AT jabbim.cz
SIP: butrus AT ekiga.net (725514 AT ekiga.net)