Hi,
I'm new here and I just read your posts. I've always considered the issue
of virgin vs young woman an interesting and important issue.
The Hebrew word used was Alma in the Old Testament, as you know. As a Jew I can tell you that it does not simply mean "young woman", although it
is describing a young woman. Alma specifically means a maiden or damsel - a young woman who has not been married/sexually touched. There is no such thing as
an "alma" who has had sex. She ceases to be alma after sexual intercourse. Therefore, though "virgin" is not the strict definition of
alma, "alma" does most certainly and emphatically refer to a virgin young woman. Besides this, the point of the verse in question declares that
this pregnancy is a "sign", and the verse itself is a prophecy of that pregnancy and birth. "Young women" give birth all the time. There
is no sign or miracle in that. "Unmarried young women" also give birth all the time, so there is no miracle in that either. The focus of the verse
is that a miracle will take place, a sign - a sexually untouched "maiden" girl will conceive and give birth to Immanuel.
The New Testament writers, when quoting this verse, specifically used the Greek word
"parthenos" - a virgin (we see this word in use with the Parthenon, referring
to a vigin goddess). So in the minds of the Gospel writers, who wrote under the
inspiration of the Holy Spirit, the young woman's virginity was indisputable.
Kindly,
Rev. Jim Cunningham
King James Bible Ministries
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