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You are also proof-texting as you haven't even considered the full context of 7:14 here. ...
... If I claimed at this point that the combination of use of the Hebrew definite article along with a prophecy to the immediate Hebrew audience forces a translation of "the" ( a position that a relatively high percent of correspondents here probably have) and the proper question than is not whether "the/a" is the proper translation but rather if "a" is even a possible translation, you would be likewise unimpressed.I would be unimpressed because your translation (even if it is also that of most published translations) is bad English, although the original is good Hebrew, because the definite articles are used in different ways in Hebrew and English. But let's stop arguing about English and stick to Hebrew.
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