> I had another question though
> I noticed that the one example they gave when N.F) is added to an
> imperfect ZKR the holem is changed to a qamas. But they didn't explain
> why it was done.
> So without the NF) its YIZ:KOR with the NF) its YIZ:KFR
>
> So should I assume that whenever the NF) is added after a word and that
> word has a holem that it is changed to a qamas?
it is not a qamas but a qamas qaton, thus read 'o' and not 'a'. Namely, the
long vowel (holem) becomes short (qamas qaton).
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