I was wondering of the word )UM.IYM was related to the word "mother".
Now you state that L:)OM and I would assume you would also include the
words in question )UM.IYM and L:)UM.IYM is most likely not related to
)UM.IYM and )UM.FH
I was wondering why you think that. To my limited knowledge it would
appear that )UM.IYM was the basis for L:)UM.IYM and that in fact
L:)UM.IYM should be morphed as L:/)UM.IYM to mean "to people" or "for
people"? Or would it be some grammar thing in which the L: is doing
something to the word instead of adding "to"?
______________
Dear BH listers, and mainly John Steven,
Related to the issue you're dealing with some days ago, I found an
interesting case similar to yours.
These are two identical words that come from different bases and, unlike
your case, mean opposite or, better, nearly opposite things:
1. In Psalm 39:14 -------- HF$A( ------- look away! ------- base: $F(FH,
gaze (Gen 4:5)
2. In Isa 6:10 ------------- HF$A( ------- blind! -------------- base:
$F(A(, be blind (not in the Bible)
Perhaps this can help casting some light on your question.
Pere Porta
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.