Isaac Fried wrote:On this one I am more or less with Isaac, on the general principle if not the detail. It seems clear that in a wide variety of language families including Semitic, personal endings of verbs etc (suffixes and occasionally prefixes) are generally forms of the relevant personal pronouns, which were initially separate and gradually became merged with the roots, with phonological changes resulting from that. This merging of roots and suffixes had probably already taken place in the earliest reconstructable proto-forms of the language families I am familiar with: Indo-European, Semitic and Turkic. Indeed the similarities between the endings in these languages suggest that the merger may have taken place even before these three families split (if indeed they did). Nevertheless there are clear indications that such a process did take place in the remote past.
...HH: Of course it can be otherwise. The verbs could always have had suffixes and prefixes. Separate independent pronouns are used together with verbs with prefixes and suffixes sometimes.
How do I know all this? If you come to think of it, it cannot be otherwise.
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