Dear Yitzhak,
You wrote, "Then, the Massoretic version at some point reinterpreted
"bprm$l$" as "bprm $l$", while it should have read "bpr m$l$". So,
here is an example where two versions (DSS, LXX) against the MT
suggest rereading the words differently."
I might be a bit biased, since I do personally feel the Masoretic Text
as we have it today to be more accurate than the LXX or DSS, but even
if I was not biased, I must ask - what makes one think that it should
not have read "bpr m$I$" over "bprm $I$"? Is it merely because we have
two sources which suggest the idea of "bprm $I$"?
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