Karl, it is interesting to see that you are finding fault with a study
which takes two homonyms to be the same word because it has not made
proper use of evidence from cognate languages that these are originally
distinct homonyms. (I have not read the article, so I don't know what
word is being referred to.) You seem happy to apply this principle to
English, based on your knowledge of Norwegian which most others on this
list do not share. Why do you object when other people apply the same
principle to Hebrew, based on their knowledge of other Semitic languages
which you do not know?
--
Peter Kirk
E-mail: peter AT qaya.org
Blog: http://www.qaya.org/blog/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/
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