I object strongly to the claim that linguistic convention and the
intrinsic meaning of a verb form are interchangeable. For example, in 50
verses in Ezekiel chapters 1and 10 we find a description of a heavenly
throne. Of the verbs with past reference I count 28 YIQTOLs, 2 QATALs, 7
participles, two infinitive absolutes, and 15 WAYYIQTOLs. In addition, there
are 3 QATALs with pre-past meaning. Why do we have all these YIQTOLs with
past reference in this scenario? Interestingly, when I translated the
Ethiopic Enoch into Norwegian some years ago, I found the same excess of
imperfective
forms, with and without prefixed WAW in the heavenly visions in that book.
Logically, there is some linguistic convention behind this, but this
convention does not tell us anything about the intrinsic meaning of the
YIQTOLs or the Ethiopic prefix-forms.
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