On 24/02/2007 21:45, Yitzhak Sapir wrote:
> ...
> The evidence from the word Messias is scant. I am curious even to know
> when it is first attested (that is, the earliest copy of the NT where
> it is found). ...
>
The Greek word MESSIAS is found in just two places in the New Testament,
both in John's gospel, 1:41 and 4:25. (CRISTOS is the much more common
Greek word with the same meaning; in both of these places MESSIAS is
further explained as CRISTOS.) Both of these verses are attested in the
papyrus P66 from c. 200 CE, which may be the oldest evidence for this
form.
This does seem to be a possible alternative explanation. I note that
this would only work with an Aramaic common noun which could take the
definite suffix. A proper name would not have this suffix, and so if we
could find in Greek, for example in the New Testament or in Josephus, a
proper name with an -IAS type ending where there might be a furtive
patah in Hebrew, this would prove that furtive patah was pronounced at
the time these books were written.
And here is an example of that: Noah, NWE in Greek (LXX, NT and probably
elsewhere)
I note that the English form "Messiah" implies that the word comes from
the Hebrew. If your hypothesis is correct, it should be re-spelled
"Messiha".
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