...There is no sign of furtive patah in this Greek form of Joshua/Jeshua, but there is in the Greek form Messias (Messiah) from Hebrew Mashiach, also found in the New Testament. (Compare Arabic Masih, which has never had the furtive patah.) The difference may be that the latter could have been quite a recent loan into Greek, whereas the form Iesous/Jesus goes back at least to LXX. From this limited sample of evidence which in fact must be much wider, it seems likely that furtive patah became widespread some time between the 3rd century BCE and the 1st century CE.
Had this form survived into Biblical Hebrew, the vocalization would
probably have been laqiax, since the i: was split (in my opinion, for
musical liturgical purposes) and the het influenced the second part of
the split. This is the furtive patax phenomenon that Uri was talking
about, and it probably took place after the first century CE if we
compare the name Jesus where it is not observed.
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