Can anyone shed light on the difference in translation relative to Gen 4:26?
It appears to say in the Hebrew that, 'Enosh began to profane [the name of]
Y--H Elohiym.' However, it is alternatively read by Ibn Ezra and Sephorno
(also seen in the LXX) as, 'Enosh began to call upon the name of the LORD.'
Further, is it possible that "men" could actually sanctify the Name
(Kiddush Hashem) or profane the Name (Chillul Hashem) of the Living G-d?
Other than idolatry, how might "men" be said to do or have done either of
these with respect to the Tetragrammaton?
Thanks for your reply,
David Fenton
NYC
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[b-hebrew] Son of man vs. Enosh,
davidfentonism, 01/21/2007