This is like Joshua 11:14 and several similar verses, only with a
[Steve Miller] Karl,
Thank you for the statement that "the negative does not apply to parts
within the comparison, but to the whole." That is what I thought. I couldn't
prove it, but I think from your familiarity with the Hebrew text, you should
know.
If there was no negative, then the verse could be either:
(1)At the time appointed he shall return, and come toward the south, and it
shall be as the first, and as the last.
-or-
(2) At the time appointed he shall return, and come toward the south, and it
shall be, as was the first, so shall be the last.
When I look at double-kophs in the Tanach, translation (1) fits all that I
sampled, but translation (2) is a special case that fits very few. Also (1)
is more literal, not having to add "shall be", which has the meaning of
"become" and thus should have a hayah verb.
Then if you negate the whole comparison in (1) you get:
... and it shall not be as the first nor as the last.
Why do you say that translation (1) is the correct one and (2) is incorrect?
I see no reason to prefer (2) over (1) except for the context, but the
context could go either way because there is a 3rd expedition against Egypt
in vv 40 ff.
Thanks,
-Steve Miller
Detroit
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.