Dear Peter, Yitzhak, et al,
I wonder if the acrostic Psalms are early enough to indicate the separation
or non-separation of sin and shin? It is apparent that most of the Psalms
are Pre-exilic to Exilic (Post-exilic?) and that they may give some
indication of the debate on the alphabet. Besides inscriptions wouldn't
Hebrew poetry retain early grammar and syntactical features to help in this
debate?
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