Was ancient Israel illiterate? Or did the use of a phonetic alphabet
allow the use of basic literacy to permeate the whole society? I
always thought it was the latter.
When Moses wrote the Torah book, there were no walls to display it on.
And except for the copy that Joshua had made on the mountainside,
there continued to be no walls at the judicial center of the country
until Solomon, hundreds of years after Torah was written.
So could the absence of tablets from Biblical period Jewish sources be evidence
that Jews of that period did not have that tradition?
Even the two tablets of the treaty were made to be hidden away in a box, not
displayed publicly. And the Siloam inscription was basically workman's
graffiti.
Karl W. Randolph.
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