From: "Chris and Nel" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>
To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.Ibiblio.org>
Subject: [b-hebrew] YaLaD - he begot, has begotton
Date: Wed, 4 Oct 2006 19:56:58 +0100
Hallo,
YeLiDTiCHa (Psalm 2:7)
This is not a stative verb by definition, yet it behaves like one in
conjugation with suffixes, its hireq under the second root letter shortened
from sere, a middle E or O in the qal being intransitive by nature..
(according to both Davies and Samuel Tragelles quoting on gesenius, who says
that there is no need for this). Why was this verb then so pronounced, so
pointed by the masoretes instead of say like the verb YeDaTiCHa (I know
you)? I see no reason
for the logic in the deviation from the expected pronounciation.
Chris
[b-hebrew] YaLaD - he begot, has begotton,
Chris and Nel, 10/04/2006