Can someone please refer me to the place in Gesenius, or van de merwe where
I can understand why the Hiphil imperfect 3rd masc sing for this verb is
written/pronounced with TWO kafs instead of the expected ONE kaf? I see that
in approximately 10 places this happens, I really can not find any
information as to what is going on here. (For reference I originally read it
in Psalm 121:6). One of my grammar books treats it as a doubly weak peh nun
verb, well that is absolutely ridiculous judging by its conjugation in the
following passages: Deut 28:22,27,28,35 This is more of a lamed heh
conjugation?. In psalm 121:6, - Isaiah 10:24, Jer 40:15 - ???? What is
this?
Thankyou
Chris.
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