This is not how language works. In any language with grammatical gender,
the gender of many nouns is entirely arbitrary and no significance can
be derived from it at all.
--
Peter Kirk
E-mail: peter AT qaya.org
Blog: http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/
Gesenius makes some interesting observations about the purpose of a noun>
being in the feminine: "Indication of the gender of the noun" page 411
(1898 edition).
This got me thinking about a few words that had no apparent reason for
being
in the feminine. One such word was the obvious -- Torah. And so I wonder
whether there would be agreement to the following 'idea' (based on
Gesenius's reasoning) that while this concept was masterful, strong,
dominant and hence a masculine ideal; it is rather by absolute contrast a
productive, sustaining, nourishing concept! and hence feminine. (All this
assuming that Torah is understood along the lines that it means nore
teaching and guiding and instruction rather than the negative concept of
'Law' as assumed in some circles)
What are your thoughts on this?
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