It should be noted that in 1863 Smith would have translated YaH:WeH as
Yahveh not Yahweh
Note that in 1863, Smith believed that Clement of Alexandria had written
Iaou not Iaoue.
Do any b-Hebrew member have any evidence that Gesenius was influenced by
either IaBe or Iaoue when he proposed the punctuation YaH:WeH?
Is it possible that Gesenius created the punctuation YaH:Weh strictly
from his knowledge of Hebrew grammar rules?
Is YaH:WeH an accurate translation of Iaoue, or is it necessary to
engage in scholarly speculation to translate Iaoue as YaH:WeH? Many
scholarly sources merely state that Iaoue favors the translation
Yahweh.
Dave Donnelly
[b-hebrew] Is YaH:WeH derived from IaBe or Iaoue or "Other"?,
David P Donnelly, 08/24/2006