I own all the "major published translations of the Bible" (to quote Harold) and found it unsatisfying. That's why I have spent some considerable time and expense trying to learn Hebrew.HH: I don't know that there has to be a difference. In Greek, too, there can be verbless sentences or EIMI can be used. I have never noticed a real difference. There are different ways of saying things in English, such as using contraction or not with verbs. These different ways don't have to imply a difference in meaning but could reflect the writer's style, his mood, his flow of thought, the tone he wants to create, the rhythm, or even his space on a line of writing material.
So without recourse to English translations, can anyone tell me the difference between the meaning or function of a noun sentence and a sentence using qatal of HYH when either appears in narration?
Example: Is there any difference when a narrator says
a. veha'arets tohu vabohu
and
b. veha'arets hayetah tohu vabohu
?????
I am assuming there should be a difference.
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