I understand that the Yemenite Jews pronounce the UnDageshed Dalet as a soft
'th' as in English; that they pronounce the Dageshed Gimmel as in English
'George' and the 'Vav' as 'wor' (ie not as a hard 'V' when a consonant),
they also pronounce the UnDageshed Tav also like 'th' in English so to
speak.
My question surrounds the only comment that I read, (without any fuller
explanation dissappointingly), and that was QUOTE"....this is an ancient,
correct and pure pronounciation". As confirmed by other eminent Jewish
scholars. My problem is threefold:
1. Historical sources are conflicting in saying either that the yemenite
jews were in this region beginning with Solomon, that they came just before
Ezra, that they arrived in 200 AD? If any of these are correct that would
mean that the masoretes were well aware of their pronounciation?
2. IF this is a correct and pure pronounciation, how are these scholars able
to establish this?
3. IF number two is true.......Why is the biblical hebrew pronounced
differently as regards the aforementioned letters?
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.