Why can't both be true? G-d gave a Name to Himself from the beginning, and communicated it to mankind, and inherent in the Name is a certain idea of Himself.
HH: I think the best reason is that the name seems more natural as a present tense verb later in the verse where it is used as a name. Here is the NRSV:
Also, can you remind me why Ehyeh asher Ehyeh is translated as I AM and not in future? Every Jewish Commentary, when expounding on it, makes the assumption that we all know that the word is used as future tense.
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