...You are going too far here. Yes, languages can be compared without reference to any historical data, and a meaningful picture can be built up. But in practice linguistic studies surely make use of known historical information. I guess that one could derive simply from studying modern Romance languages that they had a common ancestor around 2000 years ago, probably spoken in what is now Italy. But it is on the basis of known historical data, not pure linguistic reconstruction, that that language is identified as Latin and as having been spread by the Roman Empire. And similar undisputed historical data can be used for study of Semitic languages.
No, it does not. Hebrew can be compared and
contrasted to cognate languages irrespective of
whether one accepts Biblical historical claims or
one's position on Biblical historicity. This is
because the comparison of cognate languages is
a process that takes into account purely linguistic
features, and has no place for any historical
claim of any kind. Using Biblical historical
claims as if they have a bearing on such a
comparison is simply wrong.
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