But when G-d gives a commandment in the written text and then writes that it should be performed "as I commanded", and the details are not written in the written Torah, don't you agree that G-d had to have commanded it somewhere else (as He says), besides in the written text?Does "as I commanded" actually mean "in the detailed way which I have commanded", and not just something like "because I have commanded this"? I would need to look at some specific examples to see if the Hebrew actually demands a reference to some other commandment rather than a self-reference in the commandment. Perhaps this way we can get back to Hebrew rather than theology!
What I would dispute is the proposition
that this body goes back to the time of Moses.
Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.