As I was contemplating the sedarim issue an thought popped in my head:
Why does the Psalms have sedarim at all?
You have the text divided into 149 Psalm divisions. You have this
divided into 5 books (with these breaks being located at the beginning
of a Psalm. But then you have the Psalms divided into 19 sedarim!?!
(which do not line up with the starting/ending points of the various Psalms.
In regards to referencing, I can't really see an ancient referring to
the sedarim breaks instead of the Psalm breaks. But then again I'm not
them, nor living in their setting - so maybe they did.
Befuddling if you ask me.
--
John
"If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you
behave."
-Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen.