Neither HALOT, Holladay, nor BDB provide a gloss for the kethib lemma QFWEH
found in 1Kgs 7:23; Jer. 31:39; Zec 1:16.
Is the Kethib nonsense, or are the lexica implying that its meaning is
identical to QFW, which is the qere reading in all three instances?
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