But perhaps if Isaiah knew only a little Aramaic he managed to put
together a pseudo-Aramaic sentence with Aramaic words but Hebrew
structure. I have seen sentences of this type on lists like this, from
people whose English is not very good but they are able to choose
correct English words. I'm not saying that this is the case with this
verse as I have not looked at the passage in detail. But it is another
possibility to be considered.
The word ")yk" is written "hyk" in Aramaic.
The word ng& has no counterpart in Aramaic.
The word mdhbh could be a place name and hence could easily
represent a different phonology than the rest of the sentence.
There is thus no reason to consider Aramaic influence.
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