It seems a little awkward if shtayim would be the only exception - why
would the first shwa in shnayim be a vowel, and in shtayim be the
absence of a vowel?
I think that as the two forms are perfectly analogous, the shwa that
comes with the shin in both words shtayim and shnayim are completely
silent and have never represented a vowel. This fits other Semitic
languages, too.
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