because Shakespeare's first edition printers and Samuel Johnson had used them. (I don't care what was written in a manuscript by the relatively uneducated Shakespeare, who couldn't even spell his own name consistently;
You're doing it again. And while I realize it was Sapir who brought up Shakespeare... and as there is only one folio that may have S's holograph.. but a number of documents that have his signature... And that documents signed in London have a different phonetic spelling from documents signed in Stratford.... Isn't that your point re: dialectic differences??? .
Well, if you want to do what you objected to me doing, raise an aside to a main point:
--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/
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