> 2) he makes claims for language change that are
> contradicted by the archeological record. For
> example, the use of a waw as an indicator for the
> masculine singular possessive is attested to as
> early as proto-Sinaitic, as well as an internal
> yod as a mater lectionis.
Would you care to elaborate? I find this comment
odd given that you repeatedly complain that you
cannot investigate the proto-Sinaitic evidence
sufficiently because of poor photographs available
to you. But really, who said that just because authors
of proto-Sinaitic inscriptions used a waw as a
mater lectionis for masculine singular possessive
(if they did, which is unlikely) this means the Israelites
did too or had any relation to their language? Why do
you deny the value of Ugaritic to learn something about
Biblical Hebrew but accept the value of the proto-
Sinaitic inscriptions (when it suits you)?
Yitzhak Sapir
Re: [b-hebrew] CV syllables, was music in Hebrew
, (continued)