Dear Rochelle:
I find your report about Hebrew music rather interesting.
But I have a question: some of us believe that during
Biblical times (from Moses in the 15th century BC if not
before Moses, to the Babylonian Exile) that Hebrew
syllables were pronounced CV, that there were no CVC
syllables until after Hebrew was no longer spoken as a
native (learned at one's mother's knee) language: how
does that influence how the music fits with the words?
To test the idea, I read Psalm 96 pronouncing each
syllable as CV, including final syllables, and as you say,
it has a strong rhythmic component.
But the earliest examples of the music notation is found,
as you mention, in the DSS, so could it have changed to
reflect the changing pronunciation of the Hebrew
language?
Yours, Karl W. Randolph.
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