>On 22/11/2005 23:45, B. M. Rocine wrote:
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>>What is bayyom hashshlishi in Gen 22:4?
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>It should be on the end of the previous verse as it is in the Septuagint.
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From: Peter Kirk Tuesday, November 29
That certainly makes more sense grammatically. But there is a semantic
problem. Can WAYYELEK in v.3 mean "he arrived", which would have been on
the third day, rather than "he set out"?
An alternative is that there is an understood but omitted WAYHIY at the
beginning of v.4. This would then fit the common pattern WAYHIY B-(time
phrase) WAYYIQTOL...
SM: WAYYELEK is often translated "came" which includes the meaning of
arrived: Gen 29:1, Ruth 2:11, 2 Sam 18:25, Ezra 10:6.
-Steve
Re: [b-hebrew] Alter's translation (Was: Daniel 6:27 (time indefinite) II),
Steve Miller, 12/03/2005