On Tuesday 29 November 2005 09:43, Peter Kirk wrote:
> On 29/11/2005 16:12, Dave Washburn wrote:
> > ...
> >
> >
> >Can you give a reference or two, something published that sets forth this
> >view? I'll try to do the same for the description I gave.
>
> No, because I don't have easy access to libraries. But it seems to me
> that this kind of view is implicit in what Herman has been proposing
> about Hebrew grammar, and which some others have been supporting.
Nor do I. And I agree that it's implicit (at the very least) in Herman's
proposal and some posts related thereto, but in all of those it seems to be
more assumed than anything else. I question that assumption, as do many
others.