... The only possible counter example I know of is Exo 1:15.
(a.) vayyo'mer melek mistrayim lamyalldot ha`ibriyyot
(b.) 'asher shem ha'axat...
I wonder if the "rule" I have sketched here has any impact on whether we should read lamyalldot or limyalldot in v. 15. I think it does by ruling out lamyalldot!
I still have reservations, however, because even limyalldot is grammatically definite by virtue of its place in an alledged definite construct chain. Hmmmmmmmmmm.
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