From: "Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>
To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] midwives
Date: Mon, 31 Oct 2005 21:03:53 -0600
Dear Bryan,
If it refers to the Hebrew women in verse
16, why wouldn't it refer to Hebrew women in verse 15?
Since I can anticipate your possible retort, let me say that
gentilics normally modify a noun they go with. I have no reason to
think that "Hebrew" does not modify the preceding word "midwives" in
Ex 1:15. The two word agree in number and gender. There is no
preposition between them to suggest any other relationship.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard