Good question. Why is the yod in most accurances of YHWH, when supposedly
meant to be vocalized "Adonai", spelled with a shewa and not a hataph-patah,
like the aleph in Adonai? Don't know. I don't think that it has to do with
the Aramaic Shema - that is a Samaritan tradition, which I doubt would have
influenced the masoretes. Besides, in most prints (but not in BHS), the he
in YHWH has a holam, like the dalet in Adonai (this is the source of the
pronunciation "Jehovah").
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