I see Harold Holmyard agrees with you. But if you're both right
why does Uriah explicitly mention lying with his wife if he did not
understand David's intention for him to do precisely that.
On a literary front we could say that the writer is using this to
heighten our awareness of David's problem. He turns the heat up on
David. But underlying any literary purpose there must be a context
within the society it was written for. If there was no pre-existing
connection in the minds of the readers between David's ``wash your
feet'' in v8 and Uriah's ``lie with my wife'' in v11 then I
think the dialogue takes on a contrived feel.
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