Although 2 Samuel 24:1 vs. 1 Chronicles 21:1 is a _locus classicus_ in understanding the difference between the Chronicler's treatment of David and the Deuteronomistic Historian's treatment of David, and although I have often thought about the texts in question in the terms Jim expressed earlier, quoted above, in the last few times I have looked at these verses, I have begun to doubt its accuracy.
Specifically, in 1 Chronicles 21:1 it is _not_ השטן [H&+N] that incites David to count the people; it is merely שטן [&+N] (no definite article). Now the lack of a definite article is very important here, it seems to me. For the verse ought not be translated "Satan opposed [stood against] Israel, and incited David to count Israel," nor "The Adversary opposed ..." since there is no definite article, but rather, "_An_ adversary opposed ...," with an indefinite article. Now I wonder--I have not done the real legwork on this yet, so I'm thinking out loud--whether the Chronicler thinks he is referring to YHWH, or an entity other than YHWH, by this word, indefinite שטן [&+N]. The Hebrew word שטן [&+N], of course, does not _inherently_ refer to some malignant supernatural entity; see 1 Kings 11:23-25, where the noun שטן [&+N] refers to a purely human opponent, though one who, importantly, was incited _by God_ to be such. Moreover, there is nothing semantically out of bounds about God being a שטן [&+N], or at least we can say that at least one writer had no trouble characterizing the מאלך יהוה [M)LK YHWH] "angel of YHWH" as a שטן [&+N] to someone (Numbers 22:22). Clearly, the Chronicler is altering his Deuteronomistic source text. But is he completely changing the referent, or just using a subtle circumlocution?
Chris
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